EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which Veeam backup & Replication functionality allows a VM to be powered on a directly from a backup file?

Question2: Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance?

Question3: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question4: Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.)

Question5: When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server?
(Choose two.)

Question6: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question7: Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.)

Question8: Which backup method is described below? "After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM." (Select two.)

Question9: After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured?

Question10: When using Forward Incremental backups on a CIFS based Backup Repository, which benefit would be realized by performing synthetic fulls rather than active fulls?

Question11: In a Veeam Backup & Replication simple deployment scenario, the Veeam Backup Server performs the following roles:
-It functions as a management point, coordinates all jobs, controls their scheduling and performs other administrative activities.
-It is used as the default backup repository.
-It is used as a mount server and guest interaction proxy.
On which drive is the Default Backup Repository stored?

Question12: Which backup mode uses the file extension .vib for incremental backup files?

Question13: Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

Question14: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question15: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.)

Question16: Which of the following objectives is achieved by adding additional proxy servers, in conjunction with parallel processing? (Choose two.)

Question17: Which of the following is the optimal mechanism to provide multiple users with access to a VM running in a Virtual Lab?

Question18: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question19: Veeam Backup & Replication supports Dell EMC Data Domain storage systems working over the following protocols. (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question20: Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Question21: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question22: Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the Backup Proxy VM?

Question23: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration?

Question24: A Backup Administrator configures a backup copy job containing several VMs each of which are backed up by different daily jobs. How many backup files will be created as the result of the initial successful run of the backup copy job? (Choose two.)

Question25: After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured?

Question26: Is it possible to switch between backup modes when creating regular backup files?

Question27: Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories?

Question28: When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

Question29: Which requirements must be met in order to perform transaction log backups for a database on a Microsoft SQL Server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question30: Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment? (Choose two.)

Question31: Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

Question32: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository. Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question33: Which of the following is always recommended to attach to a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job? (Choose two.)

Question34: Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question35: Veeam Backup & Replication in-line deduplication is most helpful when: (Choose two.)

Question36: Which of the following restores can be performed using Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots? (Choose four.)

Question37: Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?

Question38: Which of the following can be restored from tape using Veeam backup& Replication? (Choose two.)

Question39: Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost?

Question40: Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question41: In Veeam Backup & Replication, encryption can be enabled at rest for following: (Choose three.)

Question42: When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance installed by default?

Question43: Cloud Connect tenants can perform which of the following operations? (Choose three.)

Question44: Which of the following statements about the Guest Integration Proxy component is true?

Question45: Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.)

Question46: What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

Question47: How are VMware replica restoring points stored at the target host?

Question48: What is the name of the Linux-based virtual machine used to enable communication between the production environment and the isolated networks in the Virtual Lab?

Question49: Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

Question50: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "resume on disconnect" feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question51: When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository?

Question52: Which of the main advantage of using the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature?

Question53: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature or component is able to utilize SQL transaction log backups for point-in-time restore?

Question54: What would be the primary benefit of replication from backup files compared to a regular replication process?

Question55: Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

Question56: Which of the following statements are true when comparing a synthetic full backup to an active full backup, on a NTFS-based Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question57: Which of the following backup file placement policies are available for Scale-Out Backup Repository?
(Choose two.)

Question58: Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.)

Question59: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be leveraged to perform a manual verification of a virtual machine backup?

Question60: Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

Question61: What is the stabilization point in a SureBackup job?

Question62: Which of the following is an extension for a full backup file if the Reverse Incremental Backup mode is used?

Question63: Which Veeam Backup & Replication architecture component is intended to take the data processing load off the backup server?

Question64: Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem?

Question65: Which of the following Veeam ONE components have a web-based UI? (Choose two.)

Question66: A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question67: After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose?

Question68: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question69: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question70: Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose two.)

Question71: Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?

Question72: Which of the following restore options is NOT available to an administrator account in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager?

Question73: A Backup Administrator must perform a backup of a VM running a highly-transactional Microsoft SQL Server. Point-in-time database recovery is a requirement.
Which options must the Backup Administrator select in order for the Backup Job to provide the proper level of recovery? (Choose two.)

Question74: A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization?

Question75: How is the cloud repository functionality licensed for virtual machines by Service Providers?

Question76: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose two.)

Question77: Under certain circumstances, VMware Changed Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT information have on the Veeam backup job?

Question78: What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

Question79: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

Question80: What is the purpose of scheduling a virtual synthesized full backup for tape jobs? (Choose two.)

Question81: In order to delete a backup repository from the Veeam Backup & Replication UI, you must ensure that:

Question82: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy?
(Choose two.)

Question83: Which EMC SAN storage systems are compatible with the Backup from SAN Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question84: Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose two.)

Question85: When is the full backup created in a backup copy job for each GFS retention point?

Question86: Which of the following should be taken into account when estimating the amount of disk space necessary to store backups? (Choose two.)

Question87: Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file?

Question88: Which editions of Veeam Backup & Replication include Backup from Storage Snapshots?

Question89: Which additional metadata is captured when backing up vCloud Director VMs?

Question90: Which of the following jobs can use a Scale-Out Backup Repository as a target? (Choose two appropriate options)

Question91: Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

Question92: If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by:

Question93: Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during the second run of the replication job?

Question94: Which of the following statements are true when considering the Forever Forward Incremental backup method, on a NTFS-based backup repository? (Choose two.)

Question95: Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose two.)

Question96: A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?

Question97: Which of the following is a prerequisite for installation of the Veeam plug-in for vSphere Web Client?

Question98: How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job?

Question99: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question100: Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Question101: Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file?

Question102: Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence?

Question103: Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

Question104: Your Veeam Backup & Replication environment currently has three Backup Jobs, each containing a single virtual machine with three restore points. You configure a new Backup Copy Job, add all three virtual machines and wait for the first initial copy to complete. Depending on the Simple Backup Repository configuration, how many VBK files will be created on the Simple Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question105: From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are installed? (Choose two.)

Question106: When VMware vSphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication:

Question107: Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

Question108: What advantage would be served by using Backup from Storage Snapshots on NetApp SnapMirror or SnapVault?

Question109: What is replica metadata used for?

Question110: Which types of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (Choose two.)